llamarlo
“llamarlo” means “to call him” in Spanish. It has 2 different meanings depending on context:
to call him, to call it
Also: to summon him
📝 In Action
Necesito llamarlo ahora mismo.
A1I need to call him right now.
Debemos llamarlo para confirmar la reserva.
A2We must call it (the restaurant/hotel) to confirm the reservation.
Prefiero no llamarlo si está ocupado.
A2I prefer not to call him if he is busy.
to call it, to name him

📝 In Action
No sé cómo llamarlo, es un problema complicado.
B1I don't know what to call it (or how to describe it), it's a complicated problem.
Decidieron llamarlo Juan, como su abuelo.
B1They decided to name him Juan, like his grandfather.
🔄 Conjugations
indicative
present
imperfect
preterite
subjunctive
present
imperfect
✏️ Quick Practice
Quick Quiz: llamarlo
Question 1 of 1
Which sentence correctly uses the pronoun 'lo' attached to the infinitive?
📚 More Resources
👥 Word Family▼
🎵 Rhymes▼
📚 Etymology▼
The verb 'llamar' comes from the Latin word 'clamare,' meaning 'to shout' or 'to call out.' The attached 'lo' comes from the Latin direct object pronoun 'illum' or 'illud,' meaning 'that one' or 'it.'
First recorded: The structure of attaching pronouns to infinitives has been standard since early Romance languages.
Cognates (Related words)
💡 Master Spanish
Take your Spanish to the next level. Read 200+ illustrated and narrated Spanish stories tailored to your level with the Inklingo app!
Frequently Asked Questions
Why is the pronoun 'lo' attached to the end of the verb?
In Spanish, when you use a verb in its base form (the infinitive, like 'llamar'), you must attach the object pronouns directly to the end of that verb. This creates one single word, like 'llamarlo,' which means 'to call him' or 'to call it.'
If I want to call a female friend, what should I say instead of 'llamarlo'?
You would use the feminine direct object pronoun 'la' and say 'llamarla.' For example: 'Debo llamarla a mi amiga' (I should call my friend).

